Comments on: The Collatz Conjecture

By: m3kw

m3kw — Mon, 03 May 2010 20:31:19 +0000

Hint,Try subing in 0.999999 instead of one in 3n+1, use 3n+0.999999999.

By: Search For Collatz Conjecture | Tech News

Search For Collatz Conjecture | Tech News — Thu, 01 Apr 2010 10:49:07 +0000

[...] The Collatz Conjecture « Jeff Cameron's BlogI have been fascinated by the Collatz conjecture for years. It’s a math problem that is so simple to understand, yet no mathematician has managed to solve it. Since the problem was first proposed by Lothar Collatz in 1937, … Read more [...]

By: Alex

Alex — Mon, 08 Mar 2010 06:14:09 +0000

Looks like Randall got in your head already: http://xkcd.com/710/

By: John Skinner

John Skinner — Sun, 07 Mar 2010 13:06:14 +0000

You have toooooooooo muuuuuuuuuch time on your hands. Go OUTSIDE! It’s a nice day.

By: Collatz Conjecture

Collatz Conjecture — Fri, 05 Mar 2010 12:00:26 +0000

[...] The Collatz Conjecture Â« Jeff Cameron’s Blog (jpcameron.com) – February 27, 2010 [...]

By: Nelson

Nelson — Thu, 04 Mar 2010 16:21:56 +0000

I made a silly experiment using the conjecture to generate music. See:

http://wiki.freaks-unidos.net/weblogs/arhuaco/listen-to-the-collatz-conjecture

By: evan

evan — Tue, 02 Mar 2010 13:56:33 +0000

interesting to see how primes are mapped on this in red. I like the moire like effect…. intriguing.

By: Bob

Bob — Mon, 01 Mar 2010 02:00:13 +0000

This is equivalent to proving that eventually a number in the sequence will be a power of two.

By: Ralf Nieuwenhuijsen

Ralf Nieuwenhuijsen — Sun, 28 Feb 2010 15:02:10 +0000

Oops, I submitted too early!
And my claim isn’t true either. I found a counter example.

But they do seem to converge to prime numbers.
What’s going on?

By: Ralf Nieuwenhuijsen

Ralf Nieuwenhuijsen — Sun, 28 Feb 2010 14:57:34 +0000

Some obversations:

1) every odd number always immediately becomes an even number
2) even numbers are repeatedly divided by two. This will always end in a PRIME number.

Is 2) a proven fact? I’m not a mathimatician!

You divide even numbers by two. If they are again an even number, you repeat this over and over again. This seems to always end in a prime number.

Is that something that is proven? It might be crucial here. Since it was proven, then all you need to prove is that it will go to 1 for all prime numbers.